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Consider the function $f:[0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $f(0)=0$ and $$ f(x)=2x\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)-\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right). $$ Is $f$ integrable on $[0,1]$?

Ps. Clearly $f$ is discontinuous at $0$ and it has primitive $F(x)=x^2 \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$. But I don't know whether $\int_0^1 f(x)dx=F(1)-F(0)=\sin 1$. Also, I would say that $f$ is integrable if and only if $g(x)=\cos(1/x)$ for $x>0$ and $g(0)=0$ is integrable on $[0,1]$ (since the remaining term is continuous on $[0,1]$).

3 Answers3

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Yes, it is integrable, since it is bounded and the set of the points at which it is discontinuous has measure $0$.

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Because $F'(x)=2x\sin(1/x)-\cos(1/x)$ for $x\ne 0$ and $F'(0)=0$ and that $\displaystyle\int_{0}^{1}|F'(x)|dx\leq 3<\infty$, $F$ is actually absolutely continuous, so $\displaystyle\int_{0}^{1}f(x)dx=F(1)-F(0)=\sin 1$.

user284331
  • 55,591
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Note that the function $f$ in your question is bounded on any finite interval and is discontinuous only at a single point hence it is Riemann integrable on any closed interval.

And clearly you have found a primitive $F$ such that $F'=f$ everywhere thus by second fundamental theorem of calculus $$\int_{a} ^{b} f(x) \, dx=F(b) - F(a) $$