This is motivated by a question that was posted last night, but was deleted (I think by the author) before any answers to it appeared. I don't think it has been re-posted since then.
What bijective functions $f$ from $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ satisfy $$f(x)=\frac{f^{-1}(x)-f^{-1}(-x)}{2}?$$
I first spotted that the RHS was the "odd part" of the inverse function, making $f$ an odd function. But this implies that $f^{-1}$ is odd, making the RHS equal to $f^{-1}$. So I end up with the following information:
- $f$ is odd
- $f(x)=f^{-1}(x)$.
This is where I got stuck. The only $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ functions symmetric with respect to both the origin and the line $y=x$ that I can visualize are $f(x)=x$ and $f(x)=-x$, but I am not sure if they are indeed the only ones.
How I can prove/disprove that $f(x)=x$ and $f(x)=-x$ are the only odd, bijective $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ involutions?