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Please check my below proof. Thank you for your help!

Definition:

$I_n=\{m \in \mathbb{N} \mid m \leq n\}$

Theorem:

$I \subseteq I_n$ and $I \neq \varnothing \implies I$ has the greatest element.

Proof:

Let $M$ be $\{m \in \mathbb{N} \mid \forall i \in I, i \leq m\}$. Then $n \in M \implies M \neq \varnothing$. By well-ordering theorem, $M$ has the least element $m_0$. Now we prove $m_0 \in I$. There are two possible cases.

  1. $m_0=0$

$\implies I=\{0\} \implies I$ has only one element $0$ and $0$ is also the greatest element of $I$.

  1. $m_0>0$

$\implies m_0=k+1$. If $m_0 \not \in I$, then $\forall i \in I, i < m_0$. Thus $\forall i \in I, i \leq k \implies k \in M \implies k+1$ is not the least element of $M \implies m_0$ is not the least element of $M$. (CONTRADICTION).

As a result, $m_0 \in I$. So we have that $I$ has the greatest element.

Akira
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    Excellent...... – William Elliot Apr 06 '18 at 10:54
  • Hi @WilliamElliot, I have posted a question at https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2724438/a-is-a-finite-set-wedge-fa-to-b-is-a-surjection-implies-b-is-fi, but this question seems to receive no answer. Can you please check it out? I'm quite uncertain about my proof in that question! – Akira Apr 06 '18 at 11:00
  • See my answer to that question. – William Elliot Apr 06 '18 at 22:18

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