I've been reading a Portuguese book on elementary logic. It gives the following definition:
$P(x_1,x_2, \dots)⇒ Q(x_1,x_2, \dots)$ if $Q$ is true whenever $P$ is true.
And establishes the following theorem:
$P(x_1,x_2, \dots)⇒ Q(x_1,x_2, \dots)$ iff $P(x_1,x_2, \dots)→ Q(x_1,x_2, \dots)$ is tautological.
A little bit further, they comment about the distinction between $→$ and $⇒$, but I think that given the theorem I just wrote, no further comment is needed. In the examples, it is given:
$$(P \wedge ¬P) → Q$$
And because this sentence is tautological, then:
$$(P \wedge ¬P) ⇒ Q$$
And it is said that from this, we could deduce anything. I don't see how, the last sentence means that we could prove anything. First, it says that (following the theorem):
- Q is true whenever $(P \wedge ¬P)$ is true.
But $(P \wedge ¬P)$ is never true. I know this is related to the principle of non contradiction, but we know that $(P \wedge ¬P)=0$, even assuming the principle of non-contradiction, I guess I still can write $0→ Q$, which leads me to $0⇒Q$. Wouldn't we face the same problem we had before?