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I was tasked with determining whether the following series:

$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \tan\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) $$

converges.

I tried employing the integral test which failed and produced incalculable integrals. Other methods didn't prove effective also. I was suggested that the Maclauren series might be of use here, but I'm not sure how to employ it.

Robert Z
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Bak1139
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4 Answers4

7

Or by limit comparison test with $\sum\frac1n$ since by standard limit for $x\to 0\implies\frac{\tan x}{x}\to 1$ and then

$$\frac{\tan\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}{\frac1n}\to1$$

user
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We can solve this with the inequality $\tan(x)>x$ for $0<x<\pi/2$ as follows $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \tan\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\ge\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}$$ And you probably already know that the harmonic series diverges (it can be proven by integral test).

J.G.
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Isaac Browne
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Hint. Note that for any positive integer $n$, $$\tan\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)> \frac{1}{n}.$$ See Why $x<\tan{x}$ while $0<x<\frac{\pi}{2}$?

Robert Z
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Note that $$\tan \left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\sim_{_{\infty}} \frac{1}{n} $$ As $$\tan \left(\frac{1}{n}\right)=\frac{1}{n}+O\left(n^{-3}\right)$$ Which can be derived from the Maclaurin series expansion of $\tan x$.

Dispersion
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