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This question is based on another question that is closed as a duplicate:How to determine $\prod_{g\in G}g$?, which was in the reopening queue but is removed again, so I decided to ask myself. ("This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.") So the question was

Let $G$ be a finite Abelian group, then determine $\prod\limits_{g\in G}g.$

This question has answers in the original post and here. I reasoned as follows:

  • If there is no element of order 2, every element and its inverse appear in the product, and the identity $e$ appears once, such that the product equals $e$. By Cauchy's theorem, this is the case when $\mathrm{order}(G)$ is odd.

  • If $\mathrm{order}(G)$ is even, again by Cauchy's theorem, there is an element of order $2$. Suppose there are $k$ elements of order $2$ and denote these by $g_1,g_2,\ldots,g_k$. Then, because $G$ is abelian by assumption, $\{e,g_1,g_2,\ldots,g_k\}\subset G$ is a subgroup (verify this). Then by Cauchy's theorem again, the order of this subgroup must be even, thus $k$ is odd. If we write out $\prod_{g\in G}g$ now, we observe that for all $g\not\in\{e,g_1,g_2,\ldots,g_k\}$, both the element and its inverse appear exactly once in the product, thereby yielding the identity element. Thus the product reduces to $\prod_{i=1}^{k}g_i$. For $k=1$, it's simple, $\prod_{g\in G}g=g_1$, for $k=3$ also: $\prod_{g\in G}g=g_1\circ g_2\circ g_3=g_3^2=e$, since $g_1\circ g_2\not\in \{e,g_1,g_2\}$. For any $k>3$ (the general case) the product reduces to exactly one element in $\{e,g_1,g_2,\ldots,g_k\}$ but to be honest I don't see how to infer anything about this.

So this is not a duplicate of the linked questions, the way I see it, because you are asked to determine the product in all generality. Maybe someone else knows how to calculate the product for $k>3$.

Question: for the case described above, how do I determine $\prod\limits_{g\in G}g$? This case is not treated in the other answers. Obviously the product reduces to exactly one element in $\{e,g_1,g_2,\ldots,g_k\}$, but can we say for which values of $k$ the product equals $e$ and when it equals a non-identity element from $\{e,g_1,g_2,\ldots,g_k\}$?

And please, don't close again unless there is a good reason. Also, if I'm missing something and I'm asking something that is totally trivial, please explain! Thanks in advance!

  • What case is not covered by those two bullets? – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Mar 26 '18 at 16:05
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    I think the case not covered is a group of order $2^n$ all of whose elements have order $2$... – Lee Mosher Mar 26 '18 at 16:05
  • Like described in the second bullet, $k$ is odd, and the product is easily determined when $k=1,3$. However, $k$ might be larger than $3$. And these cases are not covered – Václav Mordvinov Mar 26 '18 at 16:06
  • There might be a case missing in the answers to that duplicate. But this question has been asked a ton of times and I know one of them has a complete answer, I just can't properly search for it right now as I am on my phone. – Tobias Kildetoft Mar 26 '18 at 16:53
  • @TobiasKildetoft in that case sorry for bumping this question but as it seemed to me the question had no answer and no-one could provide a link – Václav Mordvinov Mar 26 '18 at 16:55
  • Found the one I was thinking of. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/474214/product-of-elements-of-a-finite-abelian-group/ Turns out I had answered it myself, in essentially the same way as the accepted answer to this question. – Tobias Kildetoft Mar 26 '18 at 17:11
  • Okay, again sorry for bumping then but I couldn't find anything and no-one gave a reason for closing. I found this one too by the way, which essentially adresses the same question and proves by induction: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2009129/let-g-be-a-finite-abelian-group-with-elements-a-1-a-2-dots-a-n-if-g-has Next time I'll try to search better :) – Václav Mordvinov Mar 26 '18 at 17:13
  • @VáclavMordvinov I’ve added an new answer. Would you please help me check the new idea? –  Mar 28 '18 at 04:51

4 Answers4

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In the general case you always get the identity. First note that the elements of order $2$ don't just have the structure of an abelian group, but also of a vector space over $\mathbb{F}_2$.

You are then just asking what the sum of every element in a finite dimensional vector space over $\mathbb{F}_2$ is. The answer is of $0$ unless the dimension is $1$ in which case it's the nonzero element. To see this either use induction starting at the 2-dimensional case or just note that the answer must be invariant under the action of $GL_n(\mathbb{F}_2)$, which acts transitively on the non-zero vectors.

Nate
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    Another route which essentially says the same is that if the product is not the identity, it is an element of order $2$ which generates a characteristic subgroup of order $2$, which is only possible in an abelian group if there is just one such element. – Mark Bennet Mar 26 '18 at 16:15
  • Many thanks! The observation that the structure is the same as a vector space over $\mathbb{F}_2$ really helped me. I think I got the correct induction argument too right now. Since I have not yet seen group actions and characteristic subgroups I do not really get the other ways to show that the product of all elements is equal to the identity, but I understand way better how to arrive at the solution right now! – Václav Mordvinov Mar 26 '18 at 16:24
  • @MarkBennet I think you mean, only possible in an abelian 2-torsion group. $\mathbb Z/2 \times \mathbb Z/4$ has a unique square of order $2$. – Bart Michels Mar 26 '18 at 16:26
  • @barto I was assuming the group to be finite actually. – Mark Bennet Mar 26 '18 at 16:41
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In addition to all the answers, there is also a very neat, but non-trivial answer to the general question What is the set of all different products of all the elements of a finite group $G$? So $G$ not necessarily being abelian.

Well, if a $2$-Sylow subgroup of $G$ is trivial or non-cyclic, then this set equals the commutator subgroup $G'$.

If a $2$-Sylow subgroup of $G$ is cyclic, then this set is the coset $xG'$ of the commutator subgroup, with $x$ the unique involution (=element of order $2$) of a $2$-Sylow subgroup.

See also J. Dénes and P. Hermann, `On the product of all elements in a finite group', Ann. Discrete Math. 15 (1982) 105-109. The theorem connects to the theory of Latin Squares and so-called complete maps.

Nicky Hekster
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    Thanks for your answer, I have not yet seen Sylow subgroups but once I have I will try looking at this again. Very interesting that this can also be solved for non-abelian groups. – Václav Mordvinov Mar 27 '18 at 12:28
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    The Sylow 2-subgroups are those that have maximal 2-power order. They exist (for any prime dividing the order of $G$, not only 2) and are all conjugate (per each prime). Hope you will be able to learn Sylow theory in the near future. – Nicky Hekster Mar 27 '18 at 13:13
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Here's a proof based on the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups. Because you're using abelian groups, I will use the additive notation.

Any finite abelian group $G$ is isomorphic to a direct sum of the form $$ G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{p_1^{k_1}} \oplus \mathbb{Z}_{p_2^{k_2}} \oplus \cdots \oplus \mathbb{Z}_{p_n^{k_n}}$$ An element $x = (x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n)$ has order $2$ if and only if for every $i$, $x_i$ is either the neutral element $0$ or has order $2$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{p_i^{k_i}}$. The latter case is only possible when $p_i = 2$, in which case $x_i = 2^{k_i-1}$.

In other words, we only care about those direct summands with $p_i = 2$, so let us ignore the other summands: $$ G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{2^{k_1}} \oplus \mathbb{Z}_{2^{k_2}} \oplus \cdots \oplus \mathbb{Z}_{2^{k_n}}$$

There are $2^n$ elements $x$ with order $2$: exactly half ($2^{n-1}$) of those have the $i$-th component equal to $0$, and the other half have the $i$-th component equal to $2^{k_i-1}$ (this is some easy combinatorics).

So the sum $y$ of all $2^n$ elements of order $2$ is $$y = \sum_{x^2 = 1} x = \left( 2^{n-1} \cdot 2^{k_1-1}, 2^{n-1} \cdot 2^{k_2-1}, \ldots, 2^{n-1} \cdot 2^{k_n-1}\right)$$ If $n \geq 2$, then $2^{n-1} \cdot 2^{k_i-1} = 2^{n-2} \cdot 2^{k_i} \equiv 0$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{2^{k_i}}$.

sTertooy
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  • Many thanks! Although I have not yet seen the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups (I will in a few weeks) I know the statement and I can follow your proof and it is clear for me that the sum/product of all elements should be the identity for $n\geq2$. – Václav Mordvinov Mar 26 '18 at 16:33
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I have a new idea. I’d like to write more for the sake of completeness, although it might be quite a simple one to think. Please have a look.

Suppose $G$ to be a finite Abelian group.

$$G_2:=\{x\in G\mid |x|=2\}\cup \{1\}$$

It’s easy to show $G_2$ is a subgroup of $G$; and obviously $G_2$ is a $2$-group, hence $G_2\cong C_2\times \cdots\times C_2$.

Therefore, for some $n\in\mathbb{N}_+$, $G_2=\langle a_1\rangle\times\cdots\times \langle a_n\rangle$, where $a_i\in G_2$, $i=1,...,n$.

Then an element $a$ is in $G_2$ iff it can be written in a unique way as product of $1$ and $a_i$ for some $i\in\{1,...,n\}$ (not repeatedly).

Thus $\prod_{a\in G_2}a$ is actually product of $a_i$ (repeatable). We can count exactly that how many times $a_i$ repeats; and that is $$\binom{n-1}{0}+ \binom{n-1}{1}+ \cdots+ \binom{n-1}{n-1}=2^{n-1}=\left\{\begin{array}{ll} 1,&n=1;\\\text{an even number}, &n>1.\end{array}\right. $$

Since $G_2\leq G$ is Abelian, we are done.

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    Thanks for your answer @Benny! I like your approach and I think it is correct and complete. In essence the idea is the same as Tobias' (linked) and Nate's answer here, but it really shows that we need nothing more than elementary group theory. Seems so simple now :) +1 – Václav Mordvinov Mar 28 '18 at 06:01
  • @VáclavMordvinov Cheers! –  Mar 28 '18 at 06:02