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I saw the proof which goes as follows:

$a^{n} \equiv 1 \pmod{a^{n}-1} $, and $n$ is the smallest power of a such that this is true.

We also know that by Euler's Identity $a^{\phi(a^{n}-1)}\equiv 1\pmod {a^{n}-1}$

So we get $n\mid \phi(a^{n}-1)$.


Now I am unable to understand where is the fact that $a>n$ is playing role?

Phani Raj
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2 Answers2

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It's not. Nothing in that proof requires $a>n$, and, indeed, the theorem is true for all $a>1,n\geq 1$.

For example, you gave $n=3,a=2$. But then $a^n-1=7$ and $3|\phi(a^n-1)=6$

Thomas Andrews
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What we can say is $$ord_{(a^n-1)}a\mid gcd(n,\phi(a^{n}-1))$$

As $ord_{(a^n-1)}a=n, n\mid gcd(n,\phi(a^{n}-1))$

If $a=2,n=5, \phi(2^5-1)=31-1=30$ which is divisible by $5(=n)$.

If $a=2,n=7, \phi(2^7-1)=127-1=126$ which is divisible by $7(=n)$.

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    Except $a^n\equiv 1\bmod (a^n-1)$ and there can't be any $0<k<n$ such that $a^n-1\mid a^k-1$, so we do know that $\mathrm{ord}{a^n-1}(a)=n$. Because $a$ is relatively prime to $a^n-1$, by Euler's theorem we have $a^{\phi(a^n-1)}\equiv 1\bmod (a^n-1)$, which implies that $n\mid \phi(a^n-1)$ because $\mathrm{ord}{a^n-1}(a)=n$. – Zev Chonoles Jan 04 '13 at 03:29