Given a sequence $X_i$ of independant variables we denote $S_n$ as $\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_i$.
We know that $S_n$ converges in distribtion (weak* convergence).
Does that imply that $S_n$ converges almost surely?
When $\forall_{i}\ \mathbb{E}X_i = 0$, then, I guess, the sum sequence is a martingale and the convergence comes from definition.