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My thoughts so far:

Since $φ(n)$ is always even, $e$ must be odd $\implies e$ can be written as $2d + 1$. $\implies x^{2d+1} - 1 = kn$

However, I don't know how to proceed from here. Any tips?

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Well we know $x^{\phi(n)}\equiv 1\mod n$, so we can use that, since now we know for all positive integers $a,b$ that $$(x^{\phi(n)})^a(x^e)^b\equiv1\mod n$$ which can be rewritten to $$x^{a\phi(n)+be}\equiv1\mod n$$

for every $a,b$. Now since $\phi(n)$ and $e$ are coprime, we can find $a,b$ such that $a\phi(n)+be=1$, and so if we pick those, the congruence reads

$$x\equiv 1\mod n$$

exactly what we wanted.

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    Isn't this answer wrong since Euler Theory only works if $x$ and $n$ are coprime? That is not necessarily the case – helpneeded Mar 12 '18 at 00:10
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    Well, the fact that there exists an $e$ with $x^e\equiv 1\mod n$ implies $\gcd(x,n)=1$. –  Mar 12 '18 at 10:27