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Let $f(x)$ be continuous in $[0,1]$ $$\int_{0}^\pi xf(\sin x) dx = \frac{\pi}{2} \int_{0}^\pi f(\sin x) dx $$

I tried integration by parts and substitution, in vain. How else could I try to prove this?

Thanks

2 Answers2

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We must prove that $$\int_{0}^{\pi}(x-\frac{\pi}{2})f(\sin x)dx=0$$by substituting $u=x-\dfrac{\pi}{2}$ we have$$\int_{0}^{\pi}(x-\frac{\pi}{2})f(\sin x)dx=\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}uf(\cos u)du=0$$since $uf(\cos u)$ is an odd function and its integral over a symmetric interval is zero

Mostafa Ayaz
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Hint. By letting $t=\pi-x$ we get $$\int_{0}^\pi xf(\sin x) dx=\int_{\pi}^0 (\pi-t)f(\sin (\pi-t)) (-dt).$$ Can you take it from here?

Robert Z
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