How can we prove that $$p_{n+1}<p_n^2$$ Where $p_n$ is the nth prime number. Using Bertrand's Postulate it becomes easy. But how can we prove it without using this deep result?
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Can anyone say something? – ShBh Feb 19 '18 at 17:34
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I think there is a paper of Erdös for your inequality. – Feb 19 '18 at 17:48
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@BrightChancellor what paper is it? – ShBh Feb 19 '18 at 17:49
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I will give the link to you if I can find it. – Feb 19 '18 at 17:50
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@BrightChancellor ok plz try to find.thank you very much – ShBh Feb 19 '18 at 17:54
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http://www.renyi.hu/~p_erdos/1934-01.pdf is the paper of Erdös. He is actually proving the theorem of Sylvester in this paper, and in the second page he is proving your inequality as consequence of a simple lemma. Please let me know if it helps. – Feb 19 '18 at 18:05
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@BrightChancellor thanks a lot – ShBh Feb 19 '18 at 18:17
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You're welcome. – Feb 19 '18 at 18:17
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You can see works of Chebishev on prime distribution in wikiepedia and his theorem that says"there is always a prime between $p_n$ and $2p_n$ and $p_n^2$ that indicates $p_{n+1}<p_n^2$ – sirous Feb 20 '18 at 06:34
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@sirous a historical reference, Chebishev was the very first to prove Bertrand's postulate, making this postulate a theorem. OP asks not to use it. – rtybase Feb 20 '18 at 21:14
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@rtybase the claim can be restated as for all $n≥2$ the interval $[n,n^2]$ contains at least one prime number.This can be proven somehow by estimating the size of the binomial coefficient $C(n^2,n)$.If the said interval does not contain any prime then this coefficient will be too small.We have to contradict this. – ShBh Feb 20 '18 at 21:23
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Well, there are 2 analytical proofs below ... although I wouldn't say they are based on less deeper results. – rtybase Feb 20 '18 at 21:31
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@rtybase Obviously, the result of Chebychev is very deep. – ShBh Feb 20 '18 at 21:32
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@rtybase we can prove this by some p-adic valuation of suitable binomial coefficients. – ShBh Feb 20 '18 at 21:35
3 Answers
Chebychev proved that there are constants such that
$a < \dfrac{\pi(x)\ln(x)}{x} < b$.
https://www.encyclopediaofmath.org/index.php/Chebyshev_theorems_on_prime_numbers
From this, your result follows for large enough $n$.

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By this answer I am trying to establish a start for more argument for evolution of proposed algorithm in this post. One method to show $ p_{n+1} < p_n^2$ is to show that there is some primes between $p_{n+1}$ and $p_n^2$.Experimentally we can see that there are infinitely many primes like $p_n$ such that $p_n^2-2k$ is prime,for example:
$p_n = 5 ⇒ p=5^2-2=23 $
$p_n = 7 ⇒ p=7^2-2=47 $
$p_n = 11 ⇒ p=2^2-2\times 4=113 $
This fact shows that $p=p_n^2-2k ⇒ p_n < p < p_n^2$
Now if there is a prime between $p_n$ and $p_n^2$ then we must have:
$p_n^2-2k=p_n +2 k_1$ ⇒ $p_n=\frac{1± \sqrt{1+8(k+k_1)}}{2}$
Bellow is a list for comparison:
$k+k_1 =1,...3,...6,...10,...15,.....21,....55,...78$
$\Delta=.....9,..25,....49,..81,..121,...169,...441....625$
$p_n=.... 2,...3,.........5,............7,.....11....13$
$p_n^2=....4,...9,.........25,..........49,....121,..169$
The equation $p_n^2-2k=p_n +2 k_1$ has integer solutions and is a prime generator which gives all primes for suitable values of $k$ and $k_1$. The table shows that the possibility of existence of primes between $p_n$ and$p_n^2$ is not zero, that is there is a prime subsequent to $p_n$ i.e. $p_{n+1}$ so that $p_n < p_{n+1} < p_n^2$

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This is not a Mathematical proof,only shows some few cases.This is not acceptable.Try to prove rigorously for all cases – ShBh Feb 20 '18 at 16:58
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1@ShubhrajitBhattachrya He never said it was a proof, just the sketch of the idea of a proof. – probably_someone Feb 20 '18 at 19:52
Using the fact that $\pi(x)>\sqrt{x}$ from some $x_0$ onwards (use this link asa a reference to references), where $\pi(x)$ is the prime counting function, we have $$n+1=\pi(p_{n+1})>\sqrt{p_{n+1}} \iff (n+1)^2 >p_{n+1}$$ From the other point of view $p_n\geq n+1$, this can be easily proved by induction:
- $p_1=2\geq 1+1$
- from $p_n\geq n+1 \Rightarrow p_n+1\geq n+2 \Rightarrow p_{n+1}>p_n+1\geq n+2$ (simply because $p_n+1$ can not be prime for $n>1$ since it's even).
Altogether $$p_n^2 \geq (n+1)^2 > p_{n+1} \tag{1}$$ At this point, I should stress the fact that we started with $\pi(x)>\sqrt{x}$ being valid from some $x_0$ onwards. So, $(1)$ is valid from that $x_0$ onwards. But the values $n<x_0$ can be validated manually or with a computer program. Wikipedia, for example, suggests $$\pi(x)>\frac{x}{\log{x}}\left(1+\frac{1}{\log{x}}\right)>\frac{x}{\log{x}}> \sqrt{x}, \forall x\geq599$$

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