My question regards the composition of two functions:
Let $f$ be an analytic function on a subset $\mathcal{U}$ of the complex plane and $g$ be a function that's analytic on $f(\mathcal{U})\setminus \{s_0\}$. If $g$ has a pole at $s_0$, and $f(z_0) = s_0$, can we assume that the residue of $g(f(z_0))$ is equal to the residue of $g(s_0)$ and if so, how would somebody show that?
For example: Let $g(s) := \displaystyle{\frac{1}{s}}$ which has by definition a residue $1$ at $s=0$. If we now assume that $f(z_0) = 0$, can we say that the residue of $g(f(z))$ in $z_0$ is equal to $1$ because $g(f(z_0))$ is equal to $g(0)$ or is some sort of other mathematical trickery going on? :P
Thank you for reading to this part of the question, it's very much appreciated.
Sincerely, Cedric :)