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So someone told me its infinity, but i don't get it

it sure looks like its just keep getting smaller and smaller so how is this going to infinity? or is it?

I know that 1+1/2+1/4+1/8+... is 1 so how is this infinity?

2 Answers2

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$$ \dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{6}+\dfrac{1}{8}+\cdots=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\cdots\right) $$

VJunior
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  • Wow that's actually a very simple and great answer, i googled and the previous answers on stackexchange were so vague. Thank you. also for those who might not know, the sum of 1+1/2+1/3+... is infinite so this is why. – Richard Jones Jan 15 '18 at 15:03
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No, sorry. Note that the sum: $$S = 1 +\frac12 +\frac14 + \frac18 +\ldots$$ converges to $\color{red} 2$. A typo perhaps?

Now, the sum: $$S = \frac12 + \frac14+\frac16+\ldots$$ $$= \frac12 \left[1 + \frac12 + \frac13 + \ldots \right] $$ $$= \frac12 S_1$$ where $S_1$ diverges as was shown here on MSE earlier.