Suppose we have a Wiener stochastic integral
$$\int_0^T g(t) dW(t)$$
Then it is well known that the second moment of this integral is
$$E\left[ \left(\int_0^T g(t) \, dW(t) \right)^2\right] = \int_0^T g(t)^2 \, dt$$
My question is, by the same logic what is the 4th moment?
$$E\left[ \left(\int_0^T g(t) \, dW(t) \right)^4 \right] $$
My attempt goes like this:
$$\begin{align*} E \left[ \left( \int_0^T g(t) \, dW(t) \right)^4 \right] &= E \left(\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i=1}^n g(t_i) \Delta W(t_i) \right)^4 \\ &= E \left(\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i,j,k,z} g(t_i)g(t_j)g(t_k)g(t_z) \Delta W(t_i)\Delta W(t_j)\Delta W(t_k)\Delta W(t_z) \right) \end{align*}$$
Then, (being iffy with interchanging limit and expectation) since the expected value of increments will only be non-zero when $i=j=k=z$, we get
$$=\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i} g(t_i)^4 E( \Delta W(t_i)^4)$$
$$=\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i} g(t_i)^4 3 \Delta t_i^2$$
Now I'm unsure how to intepret this. If we just had $\Delta t_i$ it would be a Riemann integral. But with $\Delta t_i^2$, how does one intepret this?