I seem to remember a nice article that I read many years ago (perhaps in the American Mathematical Monthly) which investigated the question, "Under what conditions on $f:\mathbb{C}\to\mathbb{C}$ is $f^{-1}=1/f\,$?"
Despite my online searches, I cannot locate it. Does anyone have a reference? Or answer to the question---which to the best of my memory was nontrivial (and took a complex variables approach)?
Edit: Just to set the record straight, the assumption the authors used in the article was actually this:
ASSUMPTION. The function $f$ is one-to-one from the positive half-line $(0, \infty)$ onto itself and satisfies $f^{-1}(x)= 1/f(x)$ for all $x$ in $(0,\infty)$.