By definition, $X$ is reflexive if canonical injection $J:E \to E^{**}$ is surjective, where $\langle Jx,f\rangle_{E^{**},E^*}=\langle f,x\rangle_{E^*,E},~\forall x \in E,~\forall f \in E^*.$ In order to show $E$ is reflexive, it is not enough to show the existence of linear surjective isometry from $E$ to $E^{**}$.
I'd like to know if it is possible to show $L^p$ is reflexive for $1<p<\infty$ by using Riesz representation theorem. By Riesz representation theorem, $(L^p)^* =L^{p'}$, where $1/p+1/p'=1.$
Usually people say "since $(L^p)^{**} =(L^{p'})^*=L^p$, $L^p$ is reflexive"
It seems right, but I'd like to prove it in detail. Would you give me any comment for this question? Thanks in advance!