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When I was reading Lang's Algebraic Number Theory, it wrote If B is integral over A and finitely generated as an A-algebra, then B is a finitely generated A-module. However, is an A-algebra automatically an A-module with an additional bilinear operation

I feel that it would be better to add the proof for this theorem given in Lang.

Proof. We may prove this by induction on the number of ring generators, and thus we may assume that $B = A[x]$ for some element $x$ integral over A. But we have already seen that our assertion is true in that case.

I am still confused with this theorem.

Rikka
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3 Answers3

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An A-algebra is (in this context) simply a ring B which contains A as a subring.

In that situation, B can be viewed as an A-module in a hopefully obvious way.

On the other hand, if B is an A-algebra and S is a subset of B, we say that S generates B as an A-algebra if the smallest subring of B which contains A (so that it is an A-algebra) and S is B itself. Then, that B is finitely generated as an A-algebra means that there is a finite subset S of B which generates B as an A-algebra.

For example, the polynomial ring $Q[x]$ is a $Q$-algebra which is not a finitely generated $Q$-module but which is finitely generated as a $Q$-algebra: the set $S=\{x\}$ generates $Q[x]$ as a $Q$-algebra.

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    In some other contexts, one calls an A-algebra a ring B together with a fixed homomorphism of rings $f:A\to B$. Also, all the definitions I've given above are for commutative rings; if you want to deal with non-commutative algebras then the definitions have to be changed a bit. There is surely a Wikipedia page on algebras. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 09 '18 at 05:06
  • I am sorry that I had added the proof, so it would probably be helpful. – Rikka Jan 09 '18 at 05:27
  • @MarianoSuárez-Álvarez To be more general (or symbolic, would you say :) you should consider fixed homomorphisms $f_l:A\to End(B,+)$ (resp. $f_r: A^{op}\to End(B,+)$) with some compatibility with the $B$-multiplication. This amounts to what I wrote in my (B) case. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 09 '18 at 20:14
  • @DuchampGérardH.E. unneeded generality is always an obstacle. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 09 '18 at 20:16
  • @MarianoSuárez-Álvarez Self-centered style makes sometimes communication hectic and painful, but thank you for having pointed my error nevertheless. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 10 '18 at 08:02
  • @DuchampGérardH.E., self-centered? You are kidding, right?! The very point I tried to make by telling you that your answer was incomprehensible was exactly that it provided apparent generality, rigor which is not rigor, and many things but certainly not help the for the OP: it was centered in who knows what except putting yourself in the shoes of who you are apparently trying to help. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 10 '18 at 18:02
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    A formula such as «$(\forall a\in A)(\forall b_1,b_2\in B)\Big(a(b_1b_2))=(ab_1)b_2=b_1(ab_2)\Big)$» is not used in communication beetween humans, except when one is talking about logic. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 10 '18 at 18:03
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    Can you find one (ONE!) algebra textbook that explains what an algebra is in a form even similar to that illegible formula? As a general rule, essentially any use of the symbols $\forall$ and $\exists$ in a mathematical text except in the object language of a text on logic is misguided. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 10 '18 at 19:31
  • OK, I checked Bourbaki (which is my first training) and these quantifiers do not appear in their Algebra book. I will modify my answer for a more descriptive style. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 10 '18 at 20:03
  • Bourbaki would have preferred to be shot rather than use a $\forall$. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 10 '18 at 20:08
  • No, no, it is used in the Theory of Sets book and maybe (I must check this though) in General Topology – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 10 '18 at 20:11
  • As I said, the only reason to use that symbol is when talking about logic (and only in the object language: that is, when writing the language you are talking about, not in the text in which you write about it) – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 10 '18 at 20:20
  • It is used in the whole book (4 chapters), only first chapter concerns logic and methods of proof, the others are standard math. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 10 '18 at 21:43
  • Sigh. I'll be blunt: if you really think using those horrid formulas is the best way to communicate, specially with beginners (but also with seasoned mathematicians), by all means use them — I will continue to think that to be terribly bad practice and even worse style. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 10 '18 at 22:10
  • [if you really think using those horrid formulas is the best .../...]---> it is by no means what I am saying ! [by all means use them]---> I amended my answer two hours ago in that direction. Sigh, so you do not take into account the details ! that why communication is painful (and a bit unfruitful). – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 10 '18 at 22:20
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You have two different contexts of $A$-algebra in the literature. Both give an external definition of the situation $A\subset_{subring}B$. All depends on the context.

A) The first one (the most spread and your case) is that $B$ is a $A$-module with commutation of the multiplications i.e. for all $a\in A$ and $b_i\in B$, one has the identities (associativity w.r.t. to scaling) $$ a(b_1b_2))=(ab_1)b_2=b_1(ab_2) $$

Here, "finitely generated as a $A$ algebra" means that there exists a finite set $F\subset B$ such that the smallest $B_1$ for which
$$ A\cup F\subset_{subring}B_1\subset_{subring}B $$ is precisely $B$.

From this, you see that $B$ is finitely generated as a $A$-module (FGM) means that it exists $F=\{f_1,f_2,\cdots f_n\}\subset B$, such that for all $b\in B$ we have a decomposition $$ b=\sum_{i=1}^n a_if_i $$ with $a_i\in A$.

And $B$ is finitely generated as a $A$-algebra (FGA) means that it exists $F=\{f_1,f_2,\cdots f_n\}\subset B$, such that for all $b\in B$ we have a decomposition $$ b=\sum_{\alpha\in \mathbb{N}^F} a_\alpha F^\alpha $$ where $\alpha$ is a (weight) mapping $F\to \mathbb{N}$ i.e. $\alpha(f_i)=\alpha_i$ and $F^\alpha=f_1^{\alpha_1}\cdots f_n^{\alpha_n}$ (multiindex notation) and $a_\alpha\in A$.

So (FGM) implies (FGA).

For the converse, you need to extend $F$ with the products of powers of the $f_i$, but remaining finite. There the condition that $B$ is integral has to be used. In view of [1], for all $i\in I$, one can write $$ f_i^{d_i}=\sum_{k=0}^{d_i-1}a_k\,f_i^k $$ this proves that every $F^\alpha$ can be written as a $A$-linear combination of the $F^\beta$ with $\beta_i< d_i$ for all $i$. But those $F^\beta$ are in finite number. So $B$ is (FGM).

B) In the second one, we have $B$ is a $A$-bimodule and one has, still for all $a\in A$ and for all $b_i\in B$ (associativity w.r.t. scalings) $$ a(b_1b_2)=(ab_1)b_2\ ;\ b_1(ab_2)=(b_1a)b_2\ ;\ (b_1b_2)a=b_1(b_2a) $$ [1] wikipedia page https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_element

  • sorry, i am still quite confused. – Rikka Jan 09 '18 at 04:51
  • @Rikka I detailed the two situations. Apparently you are in the case of commutative rings. Am I right ? – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 09 '18 at 04:59
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    Wow. You managed to turn this into a morass of symbols! :-/ – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 09 '18 at 05:00
  • @MarianoSuárez-Álvarez Wait, sometimes formal definitions are required. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 09 '18 at 05:08
  • I am supposed to be very familiar with the concept of algebras and I am not sure I understood what you wrote... – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 09 '18 at 05:10
  • OK could you imagine/admit other styles than yours ? – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 09 '18 at 05:14
  • If you understood that I am somehow forbidding you to write what you wrote, you completely misunderstood me. I am just exclaiming that I find what you wrote incompréhensible, and that I doubt it can be of help to the OP. You are of course free to write in a style which I find incomprehensible! – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 09 '18 at 05:19
  • I am sorry that I had added the proof, so it would probably be helpful. – Rikka Jan 09 '18 at 05:26
  • But that is something so trivial so I don't know why it requires B to be integral over A. – Rikka Jan 09 '18 at 05:33
  • Anyway, thank you for your answer. – Rikka Jan 09 '18 at 05:55
  • Urgh. No. It is not true that being f.g. as an algebra and being f.g. as a module are equivalent if you do not suppose that the algebra is integral. The boldened statement in Duchamp's last comment does not hold (as a polynomial algebra shows) – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 09 '18 at 08:49
  • OK, you may be right. Let me think of it and let's expand this. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 09 '18 at 09:33
  • It is not that I may be right: I gave you a counterexample. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 09 '18 at 18:21
  • Of course I saw it and, as I announced 10 hours ago "Let me think of it and let's expand this" ... what I did ! Now I am convinced you were right (but, if you please, I like to check it myself and it may take some time :). – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 09 '18 at 19:56
  • @Rikka I think the answer of Sir Duchamp Gérard H. E. is very nice and clear. However, I'm not quite sure what you're asking. Do you want to say about a definition of A-Algebra where A is an commutative ring? So it can be as follows: "Let A be a commutative ring. An A- algebra B is a ring (with 1) together a ring homomorphisme $f: A \to B$ such that $f(1_A)=1_B$ and $f(A) \subset Z(B)$ where $Z(B)$ is the center of B." So now, I wish this is the point in your problem. – ToThichToan Jan 12 '18 at 14:47
  • @Rikka I added a link to the wikipedia page on integral elements. – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 12 '18 at 19:32
  • @Rikka "But that is something so trivial so I don't know why it requires B to be integral over A." Yes, I think so. It is trivial if $A \subset B$. However, if $B$ is integral over $A$, then it can be presented as union of $A[b], b\in B$. Thus, we need the condition :"B is a finitely generated as an A-algebra" which helps the number set of union $\bigcup A[b]$ is finite. – ToThichToan Jan 13 '18 at 01:20
  • @mathJuan By [which helps the number set of union $\cup A[b]$ is finite] you mean that it is a module of [finite type]https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/535909/definition-finite-type-vs-finitely-generated ? – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 13 '18 at 06:58
  • @DuchampGérardH.E. Yes, I have shown that. In fact, $B$ is the union of subrings that are finitely generated A-modules. However, here, I only consider the simplest case, the subrings form $A[b]$. The proof in other cas is analogous. – ToThichToan Jan 14 '18 at 08:43
  • @mathJuan It is a chance that, indexed like that, the union $\cup_{b\in F}A[b]=B$ (with $F=B$) be a submodule (in general, with other indexations $F$ it is not). What we need here is to find that, if $B$ is (FGA), then it is (FGM). – Duchamp Gérard H. E. Jan 14 '18 at 10:14
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I'm not quite sure what you're asking. If you're asking if an $A$-algebra is automatically an $A$-algebra in a canonical way, then the answer is yes.

I'm not sure about Lang's definition, but in commutative algebra, an $A$-algebra is a commutative ring $B$ with a ring homomorphism $\phi : A\to B$. Then $B$ is naturally an $A$-module with the multiplication $m : A\times B \to B$ being given by $m(a,b) := \phi(a)b$.

It appears from the other answers that Lang uses the definition that $B$ is a ring containing $A$ as a subring. This is related to the more general definition by taking $\phi : A\to B$ to be the inclusion of $A$ in $B$.

jgon
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  • In Lang's "Algebra" he gives essentially this definition of $A$-algebra, the difference being he does not require $B$ to be commutative, so there is the requirement that the map $\phi$ sends $A$ into the center of $B.$ – Chris Leary Jan 10 '18 at 20:30
  • To follow up, I learned algebra from this book (second edition, old, like me) so the definition may have changed in subsequent editions. – Chris Leary Jan 10 '18 at 20:35
  • @ChrisLeary Thanks for the comments, I'm not going to edit, since the book in question is Lang's Algebraic Number Theory, which seems unlikely to be discussing noncommutative algebras, so I feel like the extra generality might be distracting, and because the generalization of my answer to the noncommutative case is fairly clear. – jgon Jan 10 '18 at 20:39
  • My comment was just a point of information. Your point that the question concerned algebraic number theory is well-taken. I honestly don't know the definition of $A$-algebra that Lang gave in that context. However, he did tend to be fairly consistent in his exposition. I hope my comment didn't upset you, because no offense was intended. In any event, of the answers I have seen to this question, yours is the most useful in my opinion. – Chris Leary Jan 11 '18 at 03:26
  • @ChrisLeary No offense was taken. :) In fact, I thought your comment was helpful and added useful information. I would usually edit my answer to include that information in most cases, so I wanted to respond with my reason for not editing, that's all. Hopefully I didn't come across as too brusque. – jgon Jan 11 '18 at 03:52
  • Not at all. I like to keep good relations with my colleagues here, so I thought I'd check. Best regards going forward. – Chris Leary Jan 11 '18 at 18:24