In the question Self-Contained Proof that $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{2k+1}\frac{1}{n^p}$ Converges for $p>1$, joriki made a proof to show that when $p>1$, $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{2k+1}\frac{1}{n^p}$ converges:
We can bound the partial sums by multiples of themselves:
$$\begin{eqnarray} S_{2k+1} &=& \sum_{n=1}^{2k+1}\frac{1}{n^p}\\ &=& 1+\sum_{i=1}^k\left(\frac{1}{(2i)^p}+\frac{1}{(2i+1)^p}\right)\\ &<&1+\sum_{i=1}^k\frac{2}{(2i)^p}\\ &=&1+2^{1-p}S_k\\ &<&1+2^{1-p}S_{2k+1}\;. \end{eqnarray}$$
Then solving for $S_{2k+1}$ yields
$$S_{2k+1}<\frac{1}{1-2^{1-p}}\;,$$
and since the sequence of partial sums is monotonically increasing and >bounded from above, it converges.
I understand how this proof show that when $p>1$, $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{2k+1}\frac{1}{n^p}$ converges and I know that when $p\leq1$, this series diverges. However, I cannot understand why when $p<1$, the series become less than a negative value shown by the proof. How does the proof get to this step as the original series can never be less than $0$? And does this proof also mean that when $p\leq1$, this series diverges because being less than a negative automatically shows divergence?