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I understand that $\cos(\theta) = \sin(\pi/2 - \theta)$ holds true. But,

Does $\cos(\theta) = \sin(\pi/2 +\theta)$ always hold true?

I am asking this question because I encountered the following question in my workbook.

If $h(x) = \cos x$, $g(x) = \sin x$, and $h(x) = g(f(x))$, which of the following can be $f(x)$?

(a) $-x$

(b) $\pi/2 + x$

(c) $\pi - x$

(d) $3\pi/2 - x$

(e) $3\pi/2 + x$

My book says the correct answer is (b), and I am a bit baffled by this.

I can see that this holds true by plugging in certain values for $x$. But is there a mathematical proof for $\cos(\theta) = \sin(\pi/2 + \theta)$?

Blue
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Sam
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2 Answers2

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Yes $$\cos \theta=\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}\pm \theta)$$

always holds.

You can easily prove by trigonometric rules but you can also easily check by graphical observation and symmetry.

enter image description here

You could also prove in this way:

from

$$\cos \theta=\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}- \theta)$$

thus

$$\cos \theta=\cos -\theta=\sin(\frac{\pi}{2}+ \theta)$$

user
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3

$\sin (\pi/2+x)=\sin (\pi/2)\cos (x)+\cos (\pi/2)\sin (x)=1\times\cos (x)+0\times\sin (x)=\cos (x) $

Or, you can apply what you already know, but to $-x $: $\sin (\pi/2+x)=\sin (\pi/2-(-x))=\cos (-x)=\cos (x) $. ($\cos $ is an "even function".)