I understand that $\cos(\theta) = \sin(\pi/2 - \theta)$ holds true. But,
Does $\cos(\theta) = \sin(\pi/2 +\theta)$ always hold true?
I am asking this question because I encountered the following question in my workbook.
If $h(x) = \cos x$, $g(x) = \sin x$, and $h(x) = g(f(x))$, which of the following can be $f(x)$?
(a) $-x$
(b) $\pi/2 + x$
(c) $\pi - x$
(d) $3\pi/2 - x$
(e) $3\pi/2 + x$
My book says the correct answer is (b), and I am a bit baffled by this.
I can see that this holds true by plugging in certain values for $x$. But is there a mathematical proof for $\cos(\theta) = \sin(\pi/2 + \theta)$?