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Let us recall the Hahn-Banach theorem about extensions of linear functionals:

Theorem: Let $E$ be a real vector space and $F$ a subspace. If $p:E\to \mathbb{R}$ is a sublinear function, and $g:F\to \mathbb{R}$ is a linear functional on $F$ which is dominated by $p$ on $F$ i.e. $$g(x)\leq p(x)\qquad \forall x\in F$$ then there exists a linear extension $f:E\to\mathbb{R}$ of $g$ to the whole space $E$, i.e., there exists a linear functional $f$ such that \begin{gather*} f(x)=g(x)\qquad \forall x\in F,\\ f(x)\leq p(x)\qquad \forall x\in E. \end{gather*}

During the proof of this theorem, we use Zorn's lemma. It has been shown that Hahn-Banach's theorem is not equivalent to the axiom of choice. There is also some work which has been done showing that for a separable Banach space, a more direct proof can be made. An article by Douglas K. Brown and Stephen G. Simpson studies these kinds of questions of equivalence of axioms in a logic oriented framework.

For my part, I am looking for a more practical example. Since the proof uses Zorn's lemma, we could (in theory) give a well enough built example of a linear functional which extension is "not so obvious". I will elaborate on what I mean by this.

As of most of functional analysis is, extending a linear functional is pretty straightforward in the finite dimensional case. For this reason, students do not have much trouble accepting a proof requiring this kind of machinery. Although, seeing how non-trivial linear functionals behave in the infinite dimensional case gave me the idea to look around for a "simple, yet troubling" example.

Edit: I think I should clarify what I want. The axiom of choice does not help us with the construction of an extension. I want an example where the extended linear functional is (almost) impossible to figure out/write down on paper. This would show students a problematic with non-constructive mathematics, i.e. they are unpractical in a computational framework.


I've been doing my part of work, and I've looked up a bit. Here's what I came up with:

Let $g:C_c^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})\to \mathbb{R}$ be defined by $$g(\phi)\mapsto \phi(0)$$ where $C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R})$ is the set of compactly supported smooth functions from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$. We may see this real vector space as a subspace of $L^\infty(\mathbb{R})$. We know that $L^\infty$ is not separable and that it's dual is the space of Radon measures. We could extended $g$ to all of $L^\infty(\mathbb{R})$ using Hahn-Banach.


I do not feel completely satisfied by this example because it may be just me who didn't think far enough to see an adequate extension since I did not spend enough time studying Radon measures. So, as a conclusion of this somewhat long post, I am asking for the following:

  1. A well built example which clearly shows the problems we may encounter when using the axiom of choice
  2. A computation of the extension of the $g$ I've given or a proof that the extension isn't constructible if the computation isn't possible.
  3. Any other ideas which could be added as comments on the axiom of choice and Hahn-Banach's theorem, whatever viewpoint it may come from.
alerouxlapierre
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    $C_{c}^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$ is separable with respect to the supremum norm. For each $N \in \mathbb{N}$, pick countable dense subsets of $C_{c}^{\infty}([-N,N])$, then take the union. –  Dec 27 '17 at 00:08
  • What are the "problems we may encounter when using the axiom of choice" that you have in mind? Is it just the fact that it is not constructive? – JH vd Walt Dec 27 '17 at 04:56
  • I don't actually understand the question. What are you actually looking for? Examples of Hahn–Banach which are "not esoteric" somehow? – Asaf Karagila Dec 27 '17 at 11:11
  • @fourierwho I was speaking about $L^\infty$ which isn't separable. I will clarify my post. Thank you for your comment. – alerouxlapierre Dec 30 '17 at 19:06
  • @JHvdWalt Yes. The "problem" I had in mind was that the axiom of choice doesn't give an explicit computation of such extension, and thus, it isn't very good in practical situation. I will edit my post to make this a bit clearer. – alerouxlapierre Dec 30 '17 at 19:06
  • @AsafKaragila I want an example which the extension is impossible to write down on paper. With Hahn-Banach, we only know about the existence but we have no way to construct it (except if the space is separable). – alerouxlapierre Dec 30 '17 at 19:06
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    The dual of $L^\infty$ is not the space of Radon measures. – Project Book Dec 30 '17 at 19:23
  • @ProjectBook Correct me if i'm wrong but, since $\mathbb{R}$ is a locally compact Hausdorff space, it is the case. Altought, you are right that in a more general context, say a measured space $(\Omega,\Sigma,\mu)$. Then, the dual of $L^\infty(\Omega)$ correspond to the set of all bounded, finitely additive, signed measures, absolutely continuous with respect to $\mu$. It is often denote $\mathrm{ba}(\Omega,\Sigma,\mu)$. – alerouxlapierre Dec 30 '17 at 22:06
  • No. First of all, the dual of $L^\infty(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B},\lambda)$ where $\lambda$ is the Leb measure, cannot contain measures that are not absolutely continuous to the Lebesgue measure in the first place (if $\lambda(E) = 0$, then $\chi_E = 0$ as an equivalent class in $L^\infty(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B},\lambda)$, so if $\int \cdot \ d\mu$ is a linear functional on $L^\infty(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B},\lambda)$, $\mu(E) = 0$ necessarily), so that already wipes out most of $\mathcal{M}(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B})$. So at best, you can only hope that $(L^\infty)^* = L^1$, which is not the case. – Project Book Dec 31 '17 at 00:06
  • I can't write this up in detail at the moment, but Banach limits seem like a natural example here. – Carl Mummert Dec 31 '17 at 04:38
  • @ProjectBook can you provide a reference book or an article? – alerouxlapierre Jan 03 '18 at 17:46
  • @AlexisLeroux-Lapierre I'm sorry. I am not really an expert, I am only saying things as I understand them. – Project Book Jan 04 '18 at 08:30
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    I am not sure whether this is close to what you're looking for, but there is a post on MathOverflow: What's an example of a space that needs the Hahn-Banach Theorem? And maybe also some of the posts on this site might be related: $\ell^1$ vs. continuous dual of $\ell^{\infty}$ in ZF+AD, Nonnegative linear functionals over $l^\infty$. – Martin Sleziak Dec 21 '18 at 12:55

1 Answers1

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Let $\ell^\infty$ be the space of all bounded sequences with the supremum norm and $c$ the subspace of all convergent sequences. Clearly $\lim\colon c\to \mathbb K$ is a continuous linear functional. By Hahn-Banach, it has a continuous extension $f$ to $\ell^\infty$.

I claim there exists no absolutely summable sequence $(b_n)$ such that $f((a_n))=\sum_n a_n b_n$ for all $(a_n)\in \ell^\infty$. Indeed, if such a sequence existed, we could take $a_n=\delta_{n,k}$ to conclude $b_k=f((a_n))=\lim_n a_n=0$ for any $k$, hence $b=0$. But this would imply $f((a_n))=0$ for all $(a_n)\in \ell^\infty$, which is evidently not the case.

However, it is consistent with ZF that every continuous linear functional on $\ell^\infty$ is of the form $f((a_n))=\sum_n a_n b_n$ for some absolutely summable sequence $(b_n)$ (see here: $\ell^1$ vs. continuous dual of $\ell^{\infty}$ in ZF+AD). Thus we really need some form of the axiom of choice to get a continuous extension of $\lim$ to $\ell^\infty$.

MaoWao
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  • The answer is essentially assembled from the comments, but I wanted to get this off the unanswered list. – MaoWao Feb 22 '24 at 21:31