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I'm trying to wrap my head around trigonometry. Working in degrees we get:

$$\cos(0°) = 1$$

$$\cos(90°) = 0$$

Half way between $0$ and $90$ degrees we get $45$ degrees, so it seems logical to me that $\cos(45°)$ would give $0.5$, but instead we get $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \simeq 0.7071$, why is that?

Rebellos
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8 Answers8

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The function $f(x) = \cos(x)$ , $f : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ is not a linear function, so that assumption that you made will not hold. Note that the value $0.7071$ is not far away from $0.5$ because of the curved line that the $\cos$ function follows on the cartesian coordinate system, which isn't widely deviated from the line $y=x$. This does not mean that other non-linear functions will have "middle-point" values close to $0.5$ (that entirely depends on their polynomial approximation).

Check a simple graph down below :

enter image description here

Also checking the series representation of the cosine $\cos$ function, one can see that is clear that :

$$\cos(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{2n}}{(2n)!}$$

has non-linear terms.

Rebellos
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  • This is clearly a good answer to OP problem. it is exactly what troubles the OP+1:) – Guy Fsone Dec 19 '17 at 20:55
  • @Rebellos could you please elaborate on that last formula there, because I think that is why I can't wrap my hand around this; I only understand one side of this. $\cos(\theta)$ is simply adjacent / hypotenuse, and you get a fraction, but converting an angle to a fraction, that seems much more complicated; so what magic is actually happening when you type $\cos(45°)$ into a calculator? – Kristoffer Helander Dec 20 '17 at 21:37
  • @KristofferHelander Since there is much talk to be made around this subject, take a look on a post discussing that right here ! – Rebellos Dec 20 '17 at 22:03
  • @Rebellos Yes, after doing some research it seems to me that this is a much more complicated matter. I have marked your post as the answear because in order to truly understand this I'll probably have to dig a lot deeper, but I'll do that with other questions another time :) Your answear gives a good basic understanding to start with, thank you very much! – Kristoffer Helander Dec 20 '17 at 22:37
  • @KristofferHelander No problem and yes, proving that this is the series describing the $\cos$ function isn't such a simple task. I'm happy to have helped you ! – Rebellos Dec 20 '17 at 23:00
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That kind of linear intrapolation requires that you are dealing with a linear function, but you're not. That is, your reasoning would work if the function looked like a triangular see-saw:

enter image description here

But the cosine function doesn't look like that ... see Rebellos' post! (we make a good team!)

Bram28
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For right-angled triangles, where one of the angles is $x\neq90^{\circ}$, I'm sure you know that $\cos x$ is the adjacent side length divided by the length of the hypotenuse.

A right-angled triangle with angle $45^{\circ}$ has opposite and adjacent sides equal in length, so by Pythagoras's Theorem, the hypotenuse is $\sqrt{2}$ times the length of the adjacent side. It follows that $\cos 45^{\circ}=1/\sqrt{2}$.

A. Goodier
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$$ X \in [0°,90°] $$ Are just the inputs to the function $$ f(\color{red}{x}) = \cos(\color{red}{x}), \ x \in X $$.

And $ 45° $ is the mid point of the input, Why it should be necessary that the output is also the mid point?

Consider $$ f(x) = \frac{1}{x} $$ Start inputting $ x= {{ 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}}$

Here also, $$ f(\color{green}{1}) = \color{green}{1} $$ Now, mid point of input is $5$. But $$ f(\color{green}{5}) = \frac{1}{\color{green}{5}}≠5 $$


So we conclude that it may happen that $\sin(\color{green}{0°}) = \color{green}{0} $ but there is not a direct relation/pattern between this sine or cosine function with its output (range).
Fghj
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Take a look to the trigonometric circle, for an angle of 45 degrees $cos\theta$ is the side of a square with diagonal with length equal to 1 thus it’s equal to $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$.

To better visualize take a look to the following figure:

enter image description here

user
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If you consider a square triangle with angles 90, 45, 45, it is obvious by symmetry that the adjacent and opposite sides are equal; assume they are $1$.

By the pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse is $h=\sqrt {1^2+1^2}=\sqrt2$. Then $h\,\cos45=1$, so $$\cos45=\frac1h=\frac1 {\sqrt2}. $$

Martin Argerami
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The function $f(x)=x^2$ satisfies $f(0)=1, f(1)=1$, and half way between it is $1/\sqrt{2}$, and maybe that's why $\cos$ is also $1/\sqrt{2}$ half way between.

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It should be clear from this picture that $\cos 45^\circ > 0.5$

enter image description here

Doug M
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