I watched this video by Matt Parker recently: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9tlHQOKMHGA
He calculates $i^i$ and his answer is around ~1/5 well more precise $e^\frac{-\pi}{2}$ which uses
$e^{i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin{\theta}$
where $e^{i\frac{\pi}{2}} = i$
so that $i^i = e^{\ln{i^i}} = e^{i\ln{i}} = e^{ii\frac{\pi}{2}} = e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}$ which is around 1/5
whatever. If you use
$e^{i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin{\theta}$
you can also argue that
$e^{i\frac{5\pi}{2}} = i$
and so
$i^i = e^{-\frac{5\pi}{2}}$
which is obviously different to $e^{-\frac{\pi}{2}}$.
Where is the error?
WolframAlpha btw agrees with Matt ;)
$$i = e^{5 i \pi/2}$$
Which gives a different value.
– Enrico M. Dec 15 '17 at 19:09