Reading http://people.math.gatech.edu/~cain/winter99/ch3.pdf, $\log(z)$ is defined as $=\ln|z|+i\arg(z)$. Looking on the Wessel plane, isn't $\arg(-1)=\pi$ (more generally $\pi \pm 2 \pi n$)? And $e^0=1$, so surely $\ln|-1|=0$, making $\log(-1)=0+i(\pi \pm 2 \pi n)$?
My problem is that apparently $\log(z)$ is not defined for $z=x+i0, x<0$, and yet there seems no good reason why it shouldn't be, at least in the case of $z=-1$.
Also, what's so bad about having $f(z)=f(z+ i 2 \pi)$? What part of mathematics fails if it is not a 1-1 function (if that's the correct name for it)?
Secondly: after we make the definition of discontinuity on an arbitrary line, why does this then cure all the ailments of, for example, $\arg(i)$ being $=\frac{\pi}{2}$ and $=-\frac{3\pi}{2}$? Why is not every complex number that is discontinuous in this function by the same logic (of $\arg(z)$ being multivalued)?
– Meow Dec 11 '12 at 19:35