I was given a problem: Show that $6\mid 7^n - 1$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}$ by induction.
I was then given another problem: Show that $7\mid 8^n - 1$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}$ by induction.
I then speculated that for some $α \in \mathbb{N}, \ α\mid (α + 1)^n - 1$ which I do not have the skills to prove.
I believe that I need to include the binomial theorem to formulate $(α + 1)^n$ but with binomial coefficients included, and with the added use of factorials, I am not familiar with that.
Could somebody please prove/disprove my speculation? Of course I cannot do it by exhaustion because the set of natural numbers $\mathbb{N}$ is infinite. Please do not skip too many steps for I would appreciate an explanation as to why to do this this way instead of that way.
My only attempt I guess for me to try and prove this without using the binomial theorem is proving that for some $x, y \in \mathbb{N}$ we have the following: $$x - y \mid x^n - y^n$$ Though this is just an educated guess, and since I am new to induction, I do not know how to go about this. To let you be aware of my skill level, I can solve expressions that require induction if there is only one variable in it (typically $n, k, t$ and etc).
Thank you in advance :)