Let $f(x)$ be a real-valued differentiable function on an interval $I$ of $\mathbb R$, then is $f'(x)$ necessary to be continuous?
I don't think so and I'm trying to construct a counterexample. $\sin\frac{1}{x}$ may be the key element but $x\sin\frac{1}{x}$ failed me.
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bof
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Mengfan Ma
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More than you asked for, but perhaps of interest: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/112067/how-discontinuous-can-a-derivative-be – Hans Lundmark Dec 11 '17 at 08:22
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@HansLundmark Thanks, I'll check it out later. – Mengfan Ma Dec 11 '17 at 08:59
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Let $f(x)=x^{2}\sin(1/x)$ for $x\ne 0$, $f(0)=0$, then $f'(0)=0$, $f'(x)=2x\sin(1/x)-\cos(1/x^{2})$, for $x\ne 0$. You may try to investigate $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}f'(x)$ to see what is going on.

user284331
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