Question: Let $S$ be a finite nonempty set of rational numbers, with minimal and maximal elements $s_1$ and $s_2$, respectively. Consider $\alpha\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $s_1\leq\alpha\leq s_2$. Prove that of all the members of $S$ there is one closest to $\alpha$.
Note: This question is due to the bolded portion of a proof from Spivak's Calculus text (see below).
I am reading through Spivak's Calculus and the question above occurred to me while reading his proof that $$ \lim_{x\to a}f(x)=0, $$ where it is assumed that $0<x<1$ and $0<a<1$ and $f$ is defined by $$ f(x)= \begin{cases} 0 & \text{if $x$ is irrational},\\[0.5em] \frac{1}{q} & \text{if $x=\frac{p}{q}$ in lowest terms}. \end{cases} $$ His proof is essentially as follows:
(Spivak proof): Consider any $\epsilon>0$. Let $n$ be a natural number so large so that $1/n\leq\epsilon$. The only numbers $x$ for which $|f(x)-0|<\epsilon$ could be false are: $$ \frac{1}{2};\frac{1}{3},\frac{2}{3}; \frac{1}{4},\frac{3}{4}; \frac{1}{5},\frac{2}{5},\frac{3}{5},\frac{4}{5};\ldots;\frac{1}{n},\ldots,\frac{n-1}{n}. $$ If $a$ is rational, then $a$ might be one of these numbers. However many of these numbers there may be, there are, at any rate, only finitely many. Therefore, of all these numbers, one is closest to $a$; that is, $|p/q-a|$ is smallest for one $p/q$ among these numbers. If $a$ happens to be one of these numbers, then consider only the values $|p/q-a|$ for $p/q\neq a$. This closest distance may be chosen as the $\delta$. For if $0<|x-a|<\delta$, then $x$ is not one of $$ \frac{1}{2},\ldots,\frac{n-1}{n} $$ and therefore $|f(x)-0|<\epsilon$ is true, thus concluding the proof.
Perhaps I am just being paranoid, but doesn't the portion of his proof in bold need some justification? I will assume that a finite set has a minimum and a maximum (I read this thread), but Spivak seems to make use of the claim in my question at the top of this post. How does one prove that such a "closest element to $a$" exists? Is there some very trivial proof by contradiction? Is there some result that relies on sophisticated knowledge of bounds or topology that would leave Spivak to exclude that from a mostly basic chapter on limits (before he introduces bounds and all that)? Any sort of rigorous justification (or referral to other literature) for his proof and/or the question at the top would be most appreciated.