Consider the expression $1\div (mn)(n^2)$. It should be understood that, in simplifying the above expression, one should get $$1\div (mn)(n^2) = 1 \div (mn) \times (n^2)=\frac{n^2}{mn}=\frac{n}{m}.$$ Note that we carry out the operation from left to right as multiplication and division are 'of the same priority'.
Now, we consider the expression $1\div mn$. My friend and I are discussing about the interpretation of this expression.
- My friend claims that $mn$ is an algebraic expression and therefore we should regard this as '$1$ is divided by the expression $mn$', i.e. $\dfrac{1}{mn}$.
- However, I make use of the same logic in the above example: Note that $m$ and $n$ are multiplied together, we should therefore carry out the operation from left to right, i.e. deal with '$1\div m$' first, then '$\times n$'.
The two calculations shall end up with different conclusions. Which one is the correct interpretation? Please advise.