Let $G$ be a finite abelian group with exactly one element of order $2$ denoted by $\alpha$. Prove that $\prod_{g \in G} g = \alpha$
Okay so I was given two hints for this problem
Hint 1 : If $g \in G$ doesn't have order $2$, then $g \neq g^{-1}$
Hint 2: If you write out $0+1+2+3+4+50+1+2+3+4+5 \mod 6$, why does it come out $3$, other than computing brute force?
I'm not sure at all how to use hint 1.
The answer for Hint 2 is that you can pair up $5+1=6$ and $4+2 = 6$ and be left with $3$. In that hint we are looking at the additive group $\mathbb{Z}/6\mathbb{Z}$, and we have $|5| = |1| = 6$ and $|4| = |2| = 3$, so this hint would suggest looking at group operating each two elements of $G$ which have the same order with each other.
But the problem is, is that even though $G$ may be a finite group, some $g \in G$ may have $|g| = \infty$, and furthermore every $g \in G$ may have a unique order, (please correct me if I'm wrong). So I'm not sure how I could use it to prove $\prod_{g \in G} g = \alpha$
At this point all I can say about $G$, is that by Lagrange's Theorem, $|G| = 2k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, and that (trivially) letting $\alpha \in G$ be the element of order $2$, we have $\alpha = \alpha^{-1}$.
I'm assuming there's some algebraic trick that I'm missing here, because I'm sure all I'd have to do is just write out $$\prod_{g \in G} g = g_1 \cdot g_2 \cdot \ ... \ \cdot g_{2k}$$ and find some way to simplify this expression.
EDIT: Thanks to the comments and answers below I realized that since $G$ is abelian, and for any $g \in G$, we have $g^{-1} \in G$, so $\prod_{g \in G} g = g_1 \cdot (g_1^{-1}) \cdot ... \cdot g_i \cdot(g_i^{-1}) \cdot ... \cdot (g_k) \cdot (g_k^{-1})$ where for some $i \in \{1, ..., k\}$ we have $g_i = \alpha$, but now I don't see why $\prod_{g \in G} g \neq e$ where $e$ is the identity of $G$?