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How would you prove $$\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\cos\left(\frac{2\pi k}{n}\right)=0=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\sin\left(\frac{2\pi k}{n}\right)$$

We tried induction first, but it doesnt seem to work. Any help would be appreciated!

Siong Thye Goh
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2 Answers2

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Guide:

Try to use geometric sum to prove that $$\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \exp\left(\frac{2\pi k i}{n}\right)=0$$

Siong Thye Goh
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A simple geometric interpretration comes if we divide by $n$ so we're sayng averages, not sums, are $0$. The cosines and sines are respectively the $x$ and $y$ coordinates of a regular $n$-gon of circumradius 1, centred on the origin with a vertex at $(1,\,0)$. By symmetry the vertices' coordinates average to the origin.

J.G.
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