Say we have a differential equation such as $ \frac{dy}{dx} =xy$
I was taught you would solve by rewriting the equation as $\frac{dy}{y} = xdx$
Then you integrate both sides $ \int\frac{dy}{y}=\int xdx$
However, what did not make much sense is why you have to make sure that you integrate $y$ with its corresponding infinitesimal: $dy$ and $x$ with its infinitesimal: $dx$.
Even more fundamentally, why do you need to multiply an expression by its infinitesimal to integrate? Why can you not just use any infinitesimal? What makes $dy$ and $dx$ so special in this case?
I understand that it is not technically correct to separate $dy$ and $dx$ so easily but I was wondering if we can get around this by defining
$dy= \lim_{h \to\ 0} f(x+h)-f(x)$ and $dx=lim_{h \to\ 0} h$
or is this not what was implied by Leibniz?
Furthermore, since $y$ is essentially a function of $x$, then is there any such relationship where $dy$ is a function of $dx$ and is this why you have to multiply $y$ by $dy$ and $x$ by $dx$ to integrate so that both sides of the equation are the same?
If the answer has to deal with nonstandard analysis, I would really appreciate it if you explain a little of the basics of the field in your answer so I can get it. Thanks a lot!