Let $\mu :\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}) \to [0,\infty]$ be a measure such that for all $h\in \mathbb{R}$ and $A\in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$, $\mu(A+h) = \mu(A)$. Let $c= \mu((0,1])$.
I want to prove the property that $\mu((0,x]) = cx$ for any $x\geq 0$.
I have already proven that $\forall x\geq 0, \forall q\in\mathbb{N}: \mu((0,qx]) = q\mu((0,x])$.
As well as $\forall p,q\in \mathbb{N}: \mu((0,\frac{p}{q}]) = c\frac{p}{q}$.
However now I'm stuck. I know that $\mu$ is a measure and therefore $\sigma$-additive, however I am not quite sure how to use this because $x$ is now a real number instead of an integer or a fraction.