Empirically, I can know that (a+b+c) mod 2 = (a-b-c) mod 2.
e.g.,)
1+2+3 = 6, 6 mod 2 = 0
1-2-3 = -4, -4 mod 2 = 01+2+4 = 7, 7 mod 2 = 1
1-2-4 = -5, -5 mod 2 = 1
It seems that it is only possible when we use binary modulo (mod 2).
Is there any formal proof for this?