Suppose we want to calculate such integral $\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1}\frac{\log(1-a^2x^2)}{x^2\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx$, where $|a| \le 1$. It's easy to calculate if we consider it as function of $F(a)$ and take first derivate. But why can we do that?
Actually how to prove that function is differentiable and $F'(a)$ is continious.
About second part of the question , I think we need to prove that function is uniform convergent to something (use Weierstrass-test). But what about the former part?
EDIT : I guess we just should prove uniform convergence of $F(a)$ and $F'(a)$ on $0 < x < 1$ and $|a| \le 1$.
EDIT2 : I guess the first part is : $\frac{\log(1-a^{2}x^{2})}{x^{2}\sqrt{1-x^2}} \le \frac{x^2}{x^2\sqrt{1-x^2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$(integral of the last function converges on $(0,1)$ ), for all $0 \le x \le 1$ and $|a| \le 1$. So Weierstrass test is appropriate. Am I right?