Suppose I have $m$ bins, each containing $k$ balls. I randomly remove balls (picking uniformly random balls, not bins) until one of the bins is empty. How many balls do I have to remove on average before this happens?
This feels like it should be an easy question to answer, but it's been a while since I've done any combinatorics, and I'm struggling to find an elegant solution. I've found one way to do it, but the calculation involved is incredibly messy.
At the $n$th step, we will have $mk-n$ balls partitioned into $m$ bins. Let $N(x,b,r)$ be the number of ways of partitioning $x$ balls into $b$ bins, such that no bin contains more than $r$ balls. This question provides an expression for $N$ in terms of a sum (which, I assume, is the simplest expression we can reasonably expect). It's fairly easy to see that $N(x-b,b,r-1)$ is the number of partitions with no empty bins (add one ball to each bin, which leaves $x-b$ balls to allocate).
So the probability of having an empty bin if you remove $n$ balls is $$ \begin{align*} P(n)&=\frac{N(mk-n,m,k)-N(m(k-1)-n,m,k-1)}{N(mk-n,m,k)} \end{align*} $$
and the expected value is given by $$\sum_{n=1}^{mk}nP(n)\left(1-P(n-1)\right)$$
So in principle, I've found the answer. In practice, this answer is useless. Is there a better way to solve this problem?