My confusion I think stems from lack of understanding of Borel sets. I saw this exact question basically but I didn't understand the portion that's confusing me. Let me state the relevant part of the proof briefly:
Let $E\in\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, $F\in\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^m)$. Then $E\times F \in\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^{n+m})$.
Step 1: Pick an open set $D\subset \mathbb{R}^n$ and consider $\{F\subset \mathbb{R}^m:D\times F\in\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^{n+m})\}$. This is a $\sigma$-algebra.
Is there a certain way to go about showing that $D^c\times F$ is also a Borel set, or should that just be obvious?