Let $b, k,$ and $n$ be integers that satisfy $\gcd(b, n) = 1$ and $\gcd(k, φ(n)) = 1$. Show that $b$ has exactly one $k^{\text{th}}$ root modulo $n$.
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See the same question here, part (a). The answer is in the comments and the duplicate link. – Dietrich Burde Nov 06 '17 at 19:06
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Eh, I am still stuck on where to start. – Kagamine Len Nov 06 '17 at 19:13