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I am looking to prove that the following function from the non empty group $X$ is a metric with $d$ already being a metric:

$$e(a,b)=\frac{d(a,b)}{1+d(a,b)} \ \text{where} \ a,b\in X$$

But I am not sure how to proceed with such equations.

UPDATE:

From the comments posted so far, I interpreted the following:

  1. $$d(a,b) \geq 0$$ $$e(a,b) \geq 0 \implies \frac{d(a,b)}{1+d(a,b)} \implies d(a,b) \geq 0 \Rightarrow \text{true}$$

  2. $$d(a,b) = 0 \implies \frac{d(a,b)}{1+d(a,b)} = 0\implies d(a,b) = 0 \implies a=b$$

  3. $$d(a,b)=d(b,a) \implies e(a,b) = e(b,a) \implies \frac{d(a,b)}{1+d(a,b)} = \frac{d(b,a)}{1+d(b,a)}$$

  4. $$d(a,c) \leq d(a,b) + d(c,d) \implies e(a,c) \leq e(a,b) + e(b,c) \implies \frac{d(a,c)}{1+d(a,c)} \leq \frac{d(a,b)}{1+d(a,b)} + \frac{d(b,c)}{1+d(b,c)}$$

Am I following the right path?

Teddy38
  • 3,309

1 Answers1

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You are almost there, but there are some issues about the order you've written things in.

  1. Since $d$ is a metric, $d(a,b)\geq 0$ for all $a,b\in X$. It follows that $1+d(a,b)\geq 1$ and $e(a,b)=\frac{d(a,b)}{1+d(a,b)}\geq 0$ for all $a,b\in X$.

2. $$e(a,b)=0 \iff d(a,b)=0 \iff a=b$$ where the last equivalence comes from the fact that $d$ is a metric.

  1. Since $d$ is a metric $d(a,b)=d(b,a)$ for all $a,b\in X$. It follows that $e(a,b)=e(b,a)$ for all $a,b\in X$.

  2. Lastly, we need to prove that the triangle inequality holds. Take any $a,b,c\in X$. We must show $e(a,b)+e(a,c)\geq e(a,c)$. This is the hard part of this question. There is a nice solution here: If $d$ is a metric, then $d/(1+d)$ is also a metric

A. Goodier
  • 10,964