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Determine whether or not the following sequence converges $$(2n)!\over{(n!)^2}$$ Please help me with which method i need to use to prove this

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This is actually the binomial coefficient of $2n$ and $n$, which clearly does not approach any defined value. See this post:

prove that $\frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2}$ is even if $n$ is a positive integer

aleden
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