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I am interested in proofs of famous theorems or inequalities which can be proved by the inequality $$ e^x\geqslant 1+x. $$

For example, the divergence of harmonic series can be proved by assigning $x=\frac{1}{k}$.
$e^{\pi}>\pi^e$ can be proved by assigning $x=\frac{\pi}{e}-1$.

The inequality of the arithmetic average of n-th degree can be proved by assigning $x=\frac{a_k}{(a_1*a_2*\cdots*a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}} -1$.
The divergence of $\frac{e^t}{t^n}$ can be proved by assigning $x=\frac{t}{n+1}$.


I want to know other possible proofs.

4 Answers4

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Define $p_i$ as the i-th prime number. Taking $x=\frac{1}{p_i -1}$ and we have

$$e^{\frac{1}{p_i-1}}≧1+\frac{1}{p_i -1}=1+\frac{1}{p_i} +\frac{1}{p_i ^{2}}+\cdots.$$

The product from $i=1$ to $n$ is

$$e^{1+\sum_{i=2}^n \frac{1}{p_i-1}}≧\prod_{i=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{1}{p_i} +\frac{1}{p_i ^{2}}+\cdots \right).$$

And here,
$$\prod_{i=1}^n \left(1+ \frac{1}{p_i} +\frac{1}{p_i ^2}+\cdots \right)≧\sum_{k=1}^{x(n)} \frac{1}{k},$$ $$\sum_{i=2}^n \frac{1}{p_i-1}≦ \sum_{i=1}^{n-1} \frac{1}{p_i}.$$

So, we can say $$e^{\sum_{i=1}^{n-1} \frac{1}{p_i}}≧ \sum_{k=1}^{x(n)} \frac{1}{k},$$ $$\Leftrightarrow\sum_{i=1}^{n-1} \frac{1}{p_i}≧\log \sum_{k=1}^{x(n)} \frac{1}{k}.$$

When $n\to\infty$, $x(n)\to\infty$ and $\lim_{n\to\infty} \log \sum_{k=1}^{x(n)} \frac{1}{k}=\infty$. So,

$$\sum_p \frac{1}{p}=\infty.$$

That is how we can prove the sum of prime numbers diverges.

M. Winter
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Gymnast
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*Taking $x= \log(t+1),~~t>0$ in that inequalty we have the following

$$\color{blue}{\log(t+1)\le t, ~~\forall t>0}$$ *Also see here What is a nice way to prove that : $\frac{t}{t+1} \le 1-e^{-t}\le \frac{2t}{1+t}$

*Or taking $x=\log\left(\frac{1}{k^2}+1\right)$ we have $$\color{blue}{\log(\frac{1}{k^2}+1)\le \frac{1}{k^2}, ~~\forall k>0}$$

then the series $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\log\left(\frac{1}{k^2}+1\right)\le\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$$ converges and its sum is less that $\frac{\pi^2}{6}$

From this Is there a close form of: $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty}\log\left(\frac{1}{k^2}+1\right)$ we have that, $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\log\left(\frac{1}{k^2}+1\right)= \log \frac{\sinh \pi}{\pi} $$

Guy Fsone
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Interestingly the variant $\log(1+x) \leq x$ is widely used in Information Theory. For instance, you can use it to prove the log sum inequality:

For $a_k\geq 0$ and $b_k>0$, $$\sum_{k=1}^n a_k\log \frac{a_k}{b_k} \geq \sum_{k=1}^n a_k \log \frac{\sum_{l=1}^n a_l}{\sum_{j=1}^n b_j}$$

And as a corollary, the KL Divergence between two distributions $P$ and $Q$ $$D(P\|Q) \geq 0$$.

I'll update the list when I get more.

Update: The proof of the partial converse of Borel Cantelli lemma also uses this.

Gautam Shenoy
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  • Thank you for answering.Although I looked the partial converse of Borel Cantelli lemma, it’s too difficult for me to understand... – Frenchtoast Oct 31 '17 at 06:14
  • Well the important thing is at one step, the product of probabilities is converted into exp of sum of logs of probabilities. Then the above result is applied to prove the result. – Gautam Shenoy Oct 31 '17 at 06:33
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A standard use is that $\prod (1+a_k) \le \prod e^{a_k} = e^{\sum a_k} $ so that, if $\sum a_k$ converges then $\prod (1+a_k)$ also converges.

marty cohen
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