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I meet this problem:

$\Lambda(f)$ is a nonnegative bounded linear functional on $C[0,\infty)$. Assume $\Lambda(1) = 1$. Then $\Lambda$ has a representation $\Lambda(f) = \int_{R^+} f \mathrm{d}\mu$ if and only if $\Lambda$ satisfies $f_n \downarrow 0 \Rightarrow \Lambda(f_n) \rightarrow 0$, i.e. the monotone convergence theorem holds. Why don't we need this condition in the compact case?

One direction is just the monotone convergence theorem. I have difficulty dealing with the other side. When learning measure theory, I learned that a set function $\mu$ over a ring $R \subset \mathcal{P}(X)$ which is nonnegative, finitely additive, takes $0$ at $\varnothing$ and $\mu(X)<\infty$ is a measure iff $\mu$ is continuous at $\varnothing$. This seems similar to this problem, but I don't know how to proceed. Thank you for any help!

Guy Fsone
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Edward Wang
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  • The Riesz representation theorem also holds on locally compact spaces, which $[0,+\infty)$ definitely is. The extra condition is probably simply added to make the problem easier. – Demophilus Oct 30 '17 at 10:01
  • @Demophilus: that would be on $C_0[0,\infty)$. On $C[0,\infty)$, no bounded functional can be of the form $f\longmapsto \int_{\mathbb R_+} f,d\mu$. – Martin Argerami Oct 30 '17 at 14:09
  • (too late to edit) I should have said "no bounded functional with big enough support". – Martin Argerami Oct 30 '17 at 14:15
  • @MartinArgerami Of course, you're right. Thank you for pointing that out. – Demophilus Oct 30 '17 at 14:17

1 Answers1

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I haven't worked out the details, but I'll give you an idea. The spirit of the Riesz-Markov theorem is that you want to define $$ \mu(X)=\Lambda(1_X). $$ The problem is that $\Lambda$ is not defined on non-continuous functions. But I think that you can use your condition to extend $\Lambda$ to the simple functions.


Edit: some (scarce) details of what I meant in the comment. Easier answer after that.

If $V$ is an open set, then it is a disjoint countable union of intervals; this allows us to construct continuous functions $\{f_n\}$ such that $f_n\nearrow 1_V$. The condition on $\Lambda$ guarantees that $\{\Lambda(f_n)\}$ is Cauchy. So define $$ \mu(V)=\lim\Lambda(f_n). $$ This is well-defined, again by the property of $\Lambda$.

Given a Borel set $E\subset\mathbb R$, define $$ \mu(E)=\inf\{\mu(V):\ E\subset V,\ E\ \text{ open } \}. $$ And you can continue by mimicking the proof of the RRT.


Easier: since $C_c[0,\infty)\subset C[0,\infty)$, the RRT applies to give us a regular Borel measure $\mu$ with $\lambda f=\int_{[0,\infty)} f\,d\mu$ for all $f\in C_c[0,\infty)$. Given $f\in C[0,\infty)$ positive, let $g_n$ be continuous with $g_n\geq0$, $g_n=1$ on $[0,n]$ and $g_n=0$ on $[n+1,\infty)$. Then $fg_n\nearrow f$. As $f-fg_n\searrow0$, we have $\Lambda f=\lim_n\Lambda(fg_n)$. Then, by Monotone Convergence, $$ \Lambda f=\lim_n\Lambda(fg_n)=\lim_n\int_{[0,\infty)}fg_n\,d\mu=\int_{[0,\infty)}f\,d\mu. $$

Now any $f\in C[0,\infty)$ is a linear combination of positive functions, so the equality holds for all $f$.

Martin Argerami
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  • Hello, sorry for commenting so late. I am reading this post since I met a similar problem with this, and have the same problem as the OP did. Can you expand your ideas on how to deal with another direction, especially the process that you use simple functions for extending $\Lambda$? Thank you! – Mike Jul 19 '20 at 12:15
  • I have included some details. – Martin Argerami Jul 19 '20 at 16:29