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Number of ways $6$ distinct balls can be placed in $3$ different urns such that each urn contains at least one ball.

According to me,

Total number of combination possible is $3^6$

Number of ways all urns contain $0$ balls(complement of each urn gets at least one ball) is $1$ way.

So I think answer should be $3^6 - 1$

Where am I going wrong ?

Sagar P
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3 Answers3

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'All urns do not contain at least 1 ball' $\not = $ 'Not all urns contain at least 1 ball'

Bram28
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You need an inclusion-exclusion approach.

Suppose some given urn is empty. Then the ways that can happen are the same as the ways that $6$ distinct balls can be distributed between $2$ urns.

And suppose $2$ urns are empty. Then there is only one way that the balls can be "distributed" into the since remaining urn.

Perhaps you can see a way forward from here.

Joffan
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  • Why the complement trick doesn't work here. – Sagar P Oct 29 '17 at 21:23
  • Because it is not true that the one urn empty is the same as all urns empty. There are many permutations that leave an urn empty, if you consider my answer here. And this is a variation of a complement trick - it's still counting the ways that the constraint gets broken, so you will still need your $3^6$ calculation to kick it off. – Joffan Oct 29 '17 at 21:26
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A approach can be to first take 3 balls from this 6 balls and put them one in each urn, so we will guarany that each urn contains one ball. After this we have 3 remainings balls, where each of them have 4 possibilities : stay in first urn, in second urn, in third urn or in non urn. Daniel