Just a quick question! I'm trying to solve a Volterra equation using the Laplace transform.
$$\ u(t) = t - \int_{0}^{t} (t-s) u(s) ds $$
where kernel $\ k(t,s) = t-s $. I've the solution for this question but what happens if the kernel is simplified to $\ k(s) = s$ such that: $$\ u(t) = t - \int_{0}^{t} s u(s) ds $$
In this case, $\ f(t)=t $ but $\ k(t) = 0$. Then the Laplace transform of k would be $\ L[k]=0 $? It doesn't feel right. What do you think?
Another question: I saw another Volterra question here: solution of a volterra equation but why did he differentiate the equation instead of using the Laplace transform method?
Thanks!!