I am trying to see how one can think of defining lie derivative of(along) a vector field on a smooth manifold.
Let $M$ be a smooth manifold and $X$ be a vector field on $M$. We wish to define lie derivative of $X:M\rightarrow TM$ as another vector field $L_X:M\rightarrow TM$ imitating the definition of derivative of a real valued function on real line.
Let $p\in M$. As a first attempt we define $$(L_X)_p=\lim_{t\rightarrow 0}\frac{X(p+t)-X(p)}{t}.$$ As $M$ does not have an extra structure of addition with real numbers in general, it is not clear what is $p+t$ for $t\in \mathbb{R}$. Suppose $M$ is an open subset of $\mathbb{R}$, then $p+t$ is defined and $p+t\rightarrow p$ as $t\rightarrow 0$. So, we are evaluating $X$ on a collection of elements of $M$ varying along a curve (i.e., in $1$ variable) converging to $p$.
Surprisingly, the statement evaluating $X$ on a curve containing $p$ makes perfect sense in any arbitrary manifold and do not need any extra structure. So, as a second attempt, we define $(L_X)_p$ as $$(L_X)_p=\lim_{t\rightarrow 0}\frac{X(\gamma_p(t))-X(p)}{t}$$ where $\gamma_p:(-\epsilon,\epsilon)\rightarrow M$ is a smooth curve in $M$ with $\gamma_p(0)=p$.
Next trouble is, given $t\in (-\epsilon, \epsilon)$, we have $X(\gamma_p(t))\in T_{\gamma_p(t)}M$ and $X(p)\in T_pM$ and it is not clear how do we subtract vectors from different vector spaces.
One obvious way to come across this is to push forward the vector $X(\gamma_p(t))$ to $T_pM$ and then subtract the vector there. For this, we need a smooth map $M\rightarrow M$ sending $\gamma_p(t)$ to $p$. This we need for each $t\in (\epsilon,\epsilon)$. We assume there are such maps. So, we have a collection of smooth maps $\{\eta_t:M\rightarrow M\}$ indexed by elements of $(-\epsilon,\epsilon)$. We can think of this collection as a single map $$F:(-\epsilon,\epsilon)\times M\rightarrow M$$ such that, $F(t,-):M\rightarrow M$ is just $\eta_t$. We also want $F$ to be compatible with $\gamma_p$ i.e., $F(-,p):(-\epsilon,\epsilon)\rightarrow M$ is $\gamma_p$. So, we want a smooth map $F:(-\epsilon,\epsilon)\times M\rightarrow M$ such that
- $F(-,p):(-\epsilon,\epsilon)\rightarrow M$ is $\gamma_p$.
- $F(t,-):M\rightarrow M$ is $\eta_t$ for each $t\in (-\epsilon,\epsilon)$.
- $F(t,\gamma_p(t))=p$ for all $t\in (-\epsilon,\epsilon)$. In particular, $F(0,p)=F(0,\gamma_p(0))=p$.
Now the question is, do we have such map given a vector field $X$. We do have some thing which is similar to this.
Given $p\in M$ we have a local flow $\varphi:(-\epsilon,\epsilon)\times U\rightarrow M$ such that, if we write $\varphi(t,q)=\varphi_t(q)$ then, $\varphi_t:U\rightarrow M$ is such that
- $\varphi(0,p)=p$. More generally, $\varphi(0,q)=q$ for all $q\in U$.
- $\varphi\circ \varphi_{-t}=1=\varphi_{-t}\circ \varphi_t$.
- $\dfrac{\partial}{\partial t}\varphi_t(q)=X(\varphi_t(q))$.
Given this, we have following :
- First thing we have asked for is a curve on $M$ containing $p$. For $p$, we have a smooth map $f_p:=\varphi(-,p):(-\epsilon,\epsilon)\rightarrow M$ such that $f_p(0)=\varphi(0,p)=p$. So, first assumption we have asked for is saisfied. We have got a curve in $M$ containing $p$.
- Second thing we have asked for is, given $t\in (\epsilon,\epsilon)$ a smooth map $U\subseteq M\rightarrow M$ that takes $f_p(t)$ to $p$. In this case it should take $\varphi(t,p)=\varphi_t(p)$ to $p$. Second condition on $\varphi$ says that $\varphi_{-t}\circ \varphi_t=1$. In particular, we have $\varphi_{-t}(\varphi_t(p))=p$. So, we also have a smooth map that sends $f_p(t)=\varphi_t(p)$ to $p$. We use this map to pushforward the vector $X(f_p(t))$ to $T_pM$.
So, we define $$(L_X)_p=\lim_{t\rightarrow 0}\frac{\varphi_{-t*}(X(\varphi_t(p)))-X(p)}{t}.$$ I have not yet used the condition that $\frac{\partial}{\partial}\varphi_t(q)=X(\varphi_t(q))$ for all $q\in U$. This notation is really confusing. I am more or less sure that this should mean $X(\varphi_t(p))=\varphi_{t*}(X(p))$. So, we would then have $$\varphi_{-t*}(X(\varphi_t(p)))=\varphi_{-t*}(\varphi_{t*}X(p))=(\varphi_{-t*}\circ \varphi_{t*})(X(p))=(\varphi_{-t}\circ \varphi_t)_* X(p)=1(X(p))=X(p).$$ So, $(L_X)_p$ is then zero for all $p$. So, it is not very interesting to differentiating $X$ using the flow given by $X$ which would turn out to be zero, we had something similar in case of lie brackets, namely $[X,X]=0$. It might be interesting to differentiate a vector field $Y$ along the flow given by $X$. So, given vector fields $X,Y$ we define differentiation of $Y$ along the vector field $X$ to be $$(L_XY)_p=\lim_{t\rightarrow 0}\frac{\varphi_{-t*}(Y(\varphi_t(p)))-Y(p)}{t}.$$
I guess this is how Lie would have thought of defining Lie derivative of a vector field along another vector field.
Any suggestions/comments are welcome.
May be I am missing something silly, but, any suggestion on I have not yet used the condition that $\frac{\partial}{\partial}\varphi_t(q)=X(\varphi_t(q))$ for all $q\in U$. This notation is really confusing. I am more or less sure that this should mean $X(\varphi_t(p))=\varphi_{t*}(X(p))$ is welcome.
EDIT : This $X(\varphi_t(p))=\varphi_{t*}(X(p))$ looks something close to what is called left invariant vector field on a lie group. A vector field $X$ on a lie group is called a left invariant vector field if $(l_g)_{*,e} X(e)=X(g)$ for all $g\in G$ where $l_g:G\rightarrow G$ is given by $h\mapsto gh$. So, we can see the condition of being left invariant as $$(l_g)_{*,e} X(e)=X(l_g(e)).$$ Suppose $(l_g)_{*,e} X(e)=X(l_g(e))$ for all $g\in G$ then, we say $X$ is left invariant vector field. This is exactly what we are asking for flow $\varphi_t$ to satisfy, we want $(\varphi_t)_*(X(p))=X(\varphi_t(p))$. Suppose $Y$ is another vector field and $\varphi_t$ is the flow corresponding to $X$. We would say $Y$ is invariant under the flow if $(\varphi_t)_*(Y(p))=Y(\varphi_t(p))$. It seems reasonable to expect that $X$ is invariant under its own flow. So, it should be certainly true that $$(\varphi_t)_*(X(p))=X(\varphi_t(p)).$$ But, I could not see that from the conditions on the flow.