I've been questioning some things about the use of variables that I hadn't paid much attention to. I'm sorry if this question is too obvious. I know how to use variables, I've worked with them many times. My question is on some logical concerns I have.
In mathematics we often state an identity using the variable $x$, for example: $(x+1)^2=x^2+2x+1$ $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}$ or we describe a set like $A=\{(\cos(t),\sin(t)) | t\in \mathbb{R} \}$. Why is it logically valid to use the same symbol for different numbers in the same context? The first identity is valid for $x=3$ and for $x=4$ and although both numbers are the same letter $x$, I certainly can't say $3=x=4$ because $x$ can't be 3 and 4 at the same "time".
Similarly in $A$, $t$ takes all the possible real values, so the same symbol is used for infinitely many objects.
When I describe the unit circle I say that it is the set of all the points $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2$ that satisy $x^2+y^2=1$, Why can I use the same symbol "$(x,y)$" to refer to all those points and not imply an equality between them?
Another doubt I have concerning variables is: when I name an object with a letter (stating a definition) Is it the same "type" of equality as $1+1=2$ where the right hand side is the same as the left hand side? For example, in the previous example $A=\{(\cos(t),\sin(t)) | t\in \mathbb{R} \}$. An equality between sets happens when they both have the same elements, but how can A have the same elements as the right hand side when it isn't even defined before the equality. I know some people use $:=$ instead of $=$ to state a definition, so is there a mathematical distinction?
I apologize if this question is too elemental. I'm not sure how to tag this question, please correct me if I'm wrong.