Clarification: Does $\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}f'(x)=0$ as $x$ approaches infinity mean $\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} f(x)$ exists in the extended real numbers $[-\infty,\infty]$?
I was thinking a lot about this problem and I couldn't prove it; I would appreciate any help!
This isn't a duplicate! In that problem you have to prove that the limit of f(x) exists in the extended real numbers, you don't assume it does.