I know that the Axiom of Choice is required to show that the union of a countable number of countable sets is countable. However, what if the sets are well-ordered, i.e. we have a particular well-ordering for each set. Are we then able to show that the union is countable without the AoC?
Someone here mentions we can only show that it is at most $\aleph_1$ rather than $\aleph_0$, but I don't know whether this is correct or, if so, how one would show that.
Suppose that $S = \{A_n \,|\, n < \omega\}$ is our countable system of sets. Clearly then, since each $A_n$ is well-ordered, it is isomorphic to a unique ordinal number $\alpha_n$ where obviously $|\alpha_n| \leq \aleph_0$. Obviously if $\alpha_n = \omega$ then we can form a sequence whose range is $A_n$, but the problem is that it could be that $\alpha_n > \omega$ and still be the case that $\alpha_n$ is countable (for example the ordinal $\omega \cdot 2$ is still countable). In this case I don't see how we can generally choose a sequence whose range is $A_n$, which is what we need to do if the AoC is to be avoided.
I am actually trying to prove something more general: if $S = \{A_\beta\}_{\beta < \aleph_\gamma}$ is a transfinite sequence of well-ordered sets, and each $A_\beta$ in $S$ is at most $\aleph_\gamma$, then the union $\bigcup_{\beta < \aleph_\gamma} A_\beta$ is also at most $\aleph_\gamma$. However, I do not think there is any chance of proving this without choice if the case where $\gamma = 0$ (i.e. the case above where everything is countable) cannot even be proven without choice.