The answer is $(-1)^m\binom{n-1}{m}$. The trick is to use Pascal's Formula and induction.
Here's the full argument. For $m=0$, the sum is just equal to $1$ which is indeed the same as $(-1)^0\binom{n-1}{0}$. Now, for the inductive step, assume $m\geq1$ and that the statement is true for smaller values. We get
$$\sum_{k=0}^m (-1)^k\binom{n}{k} = (-1)^m\binom{n}{m} + \sum_{k=0}^{m-1} (-1)^k\binom{n}{k}$$
Now, applying the inductive hypothesis, we get that this is equal to
$$(-1)^m\binom{n}{m} + (-1)^{m-1}\binom{n-1}{m-1} = (-1)^{m}\left(\binom{n}{m} -
\binom{n-1}{m-1}\right).$$
By Pascal's Formula, $\binom{n}{m}-\binom{n-1}{m-1}$ is equal to $\binom{n-1}{m}$ and so we get
$$(-1)^m\binom{n-1}{m}$$
and we are done.