Although the sum at hand can be rewritten as a lower Riemann sum
for an integral $\displaystyle\;\int_0^1 \frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}}$.
$$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{kn}} = \frac1n\sum_{k=1}^n \sqrt{\frac{n}{k}}$$
It doesn't mean we can directly claim the limit of the sum equal to the integral. This is because the intergrand $\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}$ diverges at $x = 0$ and the upper Riemann sum of the integral doesn't exist.
To proceed along this route, more justification is needed.
If you really want to go along this route, look at this answer for a related question.
It shows that when your intergrand is non-negative, decreasing and the improper
Riemann integral exists, the limit of the sum still equal to the improper Riemann integral.
In this answer, we use a different approach, we will bound the sum directly.
For $k \ge 1$, we have
$\displaystyle\;\frac{\sqrt{k}+\sqrt{k-1}}{2} \le \sqrt{k} \le \frac{\sqrt{k+1}+\sqrt{k}}{2}$, this leads to
$$2(\sqrt{k}-\sqrt{k-1}) = \frac{2}{\sqrt{k}+\sqrt{k-1}} \ge \frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} \ge \frac{2}{\sqrt{k+1}+\sqrt{k}} = 2(\sqrt{k+1}-\sqrt{k})
$$
Summing $k$ from $1$ to $n$ and take advantage of the fact that the terms on LHS and RHS are telescoping, we obtain
$$
2\sqrt{n} \ge \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} = 2(\sqrt{n+1} - 1) \ge 2\sqrt{n} - 2
\quad\implies\quad
2 \ge \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{nk}} \ge 2 - \frac{2}{\sqrt{n}}
$$
Sim $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} 2 - \frac{2}{\sqrt{n}} = 2$, by squeezing, we can conclude
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{kn}} = 2$$
\displaystyle
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and similar commands in the titles. For more details see here: Guidelines for good use of $\rm\LaTeX$ in question titles – Martin Sleziak Dec 23 '19 at 16:56