Does this integral $(1)$
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}{e^x-1\over e^{ax}-1} dx=F(a)\tag1$$
$a\ge1$
has a closed form?
We may rewrite it as
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}{1\over e^{x(a-1)}-e^{-x}}-\int_{0}^{\infty}{1\over e^{ax}-1} dx=F(a)\tag2$$
we have $$\zeta(s)={1\over \Gamma(s)}\int_{0}^{\infty}{x^{s-1}\over e^{x}-1}dx\tag3$$
Guess of a closed form for $F(a)$
$$F(a)=\color{red}{{\pi\over 2a}\cot\left({\pi\over a}\right)}-{1\over a}\ln(2a)+ {2\over a}\sum_{n=1}^{\left\lfloor {a-1\over 2}\right\rfloor}\cos\left({2n\pi\over a}\right)\ln\sin\left({n\pi\over a}\right)\tag4$$
I was checking on the wolfram integral, the red part give part of the closed form but the black part seem to be a mistake somewhere I can't figured it out.
According to wolfram integral:
$$F(2)=\ln(2)$$
$$F(3)={1\over 2}\ln(3)-{\sqrt{3}\over 18}\pi$$
$$F(4)={3\over 4}\ln(2)-{\pi\over 8}$$