I am giving a two part presentation to a class on cardinality. I have done the first part but the prof wasn't satisfied with my definition of a function. For this presentation I have limited time so I want to go through definitions as quickly as possible. For this reason I don't want to talk about relations.
Does this work as a definition of a function:
$$\{(x,f(x))|\forall x \in A, \, \exists ! y\in B \mathrm{\,such \,that \,}f(x) = y \}$$
where A is the domain and B is the codomain? Specifically, does this ensure that everything in A gets mapped to something? Do I have to say that x is in A and f(x) is in B and for all A there exists a unique etc etc?